ELI5: Do people with low GFR have lower urine output compare to normal?

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According to the kidney’s autoregulatory response, if the afferent arteries are constricted, this causes a smaller amount of blood to be filtered, which reduces the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Low GFR will cause more salts to be reabsorbed. Because water follows salt through osmosis, does this mean less water being secreted, therefore less urine output, particularly to those with ckd?

Comments

  1. SinfulTitanx Avatar

    Yes, people with low GFR can have lower urine output, but it depends on the stage of kidney disease. Early on, they may still produce normal amounts of urine, but it’s not properly filtered. As kidney function declines, the ability to regulate fluids worsens, leading to less urine output in advanced stages.

  2. JustSomebody56 Avatar

    Generally no. Until there is a minimum of GFR, the body regulates how much uterine to reabsorb, so the quantity remains essentially the same (through diuretin and vasopressin hormones).

    When a kidney starts to fail it does by losing its reabsorption abilities.

    So the urine will be now and more clear, lookwise.

    After sone time the urine will stop getting produced.

    This is a ELI5, with a broad generalisation of various pathologies into a simple scheme

  3. DeusSpaghetti Avatar

    Depends on the specfic disease and person.

    I had <10% kidney function for quite a while pre-dialysis, and I wasn’t fluid restricted or retaining fluids.