The Privilegium Maius/Majus was discovered as a forgery and (mostly as far as I can tell) treated as such by the emperor at the time relatively quickly. It would only be until the Habsburgs secured the imperial throne that it became accepted as law, but my question is, would the Habsburgs not have had the power/privilege within the Privilegium Maius anyway?
A different, slightly out of line for this sub, but just so that its clear what I’m asking question is:
If the Privilegium Maius did not exist, how different would things likely have been? If at all?
Comments
Welcome to /r/AskHistorians. Please Read Our Rules before you comment in this community. Understand that rule breaking comments get removed.
Please consider Clicking Here for RemindMeBot as it takes time for an answer to be written. Additionally, for weekly content summaries, Click Here to Subscribe to our Weekly Roundup.
We thank you for your interest in this question, and your patience in waiting for an in-depth and comprehensive answer to show up. In addition to the Weekly Roundup and RemindMeBot, consider using our Browser Extension. In the meantime our Bluesky, and Sunday Digest feature excellent content that has already been written!
I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please contact the moderators of this subreddit if you have any questions or concerns.