Strong sense of justice = access to absolute morality ?

I commented on a video recently where someone claimed that describing a “strong sense of justice” as a possible trait / characteristic in certain mental health disorders (like OCPD) somehow implies a belief in “absolute morality.”

That really confused me.

To clarify:
I never said having a strong sense of justice is itself a disorder. I simply pointed out that in certain clinical contexts, when someone’s moral reasoning becomes rigid, inflexible, and distressing, it can be part of a disorder, for example OCPD.

Then another commenter jumped in and said that believing this implies I think those people have access to absolute morality—which was never my point and doesn’t even logically follow to me.

So I’m asking here:

Does referencing “a strong sense of justice” in a clinical/behavioral context imply belief in some objective moral truth?

Is this a common misunderstanding?

Or am I missing some nuance in how people interpret the phrase “strong sense of justice”?

I’d love thoughtful feedback. I’m genuinely trying to understand how this misinterpretation could happen—or if I phrased things poorly without realizing it.

Thank you 🫶